PokerTracker

Hi, I wonder if I'm a bit confused as to what coldcalling is.

I understood it to be when a player has raised preflop before you act, then you call the raise. If this is the case, does calling a preflop raise from one of the blinds not count as coldcalling? I assumed it would because the blinds are not voluntarily put into the pit, but PT appears to not count this as coldcalling?

Is this right or am I confused?

Thanks

In PT2 the calculation is if the player has any money in the pot, even if it's from posting a blind, it's NOT considered a cold call.